How did Jesus say “Unless the marriage is unlawful”?

The difficulty comes in with Matt 5:32. A woman is caused to sin when her husband divorces her, though no fault of her own is indicated. His conclusion that divorce = adultery seems logical, but patently unfair. We are each to be punished for our own sins, not the sins of another.

In SP Matt 5:32 stands out as an exception to the standard formulations. Therefor, it is calling attention to itself for special handling.

Adultery symbolizes unfaithfulness in the relationship with God. The man is Christ and the woman is the church, or us individually depending on the scope of the voice.

If there is a breach in the relationship, no matter who is at fault, the woman is separated from God. She is left with something other than God as God. Since God is faithful, this would never happen in the relationship with him, therefore, it is a hypothetical situation which says just the opposite.

We hear it this way: If God were to divorce the church, then he would make the church a harlot. Since God does not cause us to sin, he will never divorce her.

So the lesson we learn from the shadow of marriage is that Christ will not leave us, but instead will love us enough to lay down his lie for us.