Jesus speaks directly to the hermeneutic of the Sadducees and condemns it;

Mt 22:29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.

Mr 12:24 And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God?

What interpretation did the Sadducees have that caused Jesus to speak so directly in telling them that they did not know how to read the scriptures?

Mt 22:23 ¶ The same day came to him the Sadducees, which say that there is no resurrection, and asked him,

Mt 22:24 Saying, Master, Moses said, If a man die, having no children, his brother shall marry his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother.

Mt 22:25 Now there were with us seven brethren: and the first, when he had married a wife, deceased, and, having no issue, left his wife unto his brother:

Mt 22:26 Likewise the second also, and the third, unto the seventh.

Mt 22:27 And last of all the woman died also.

Mt 22:28 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.

Mt 22:29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.

Mt 22:30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.

Mt 22:31 But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying,

Mt 22:32 I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living.

The Sadducees did not believe in the resurrection, and they only accepted the first five books of the Bible as scripture. The question was not sincere, but was intended to mock him in his preaching about the resurrection. "See how silly the resurrection is, all these marriage relationships will be all messed up if it were true."

The first rebuttal was that they did not know the scriptures nor the power of God because they did not know that the scriptures teach that there is no marriage in the resurrection.

For modern Bible students, we must ask the same thing: When is the marriage of the Lamb? Many will say that it occurs in the resurrection, and Jesus responds the same way: You do not know the scriptures nor the power of God.

Where in the first five books of the Bible is the teaching that there is no marriage in the resurrection?

Marriage is of the flesh:

Eve is flesh and bone of Adam. No mention of spirit.

Ge 2:23 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.

In the type, Adam represents Christ and Eve represents the church. Adam received his bride while he was asleep. Christ obtained his bride through the cross.

David is also a type of Christ, and Israel becomes a type of his bride, the church, by the use of the words bone and flesh, describing their relationship to David.

1Ch 11:1 Then all Israel gathered themselves to David unto Hebron, saying, Behold, we are thy bone and thy flesh.

Hebron = companion. Israel was the companion [help-meet] for David.

In Job the same words are used. It may be missed in Satan's words "Touch his bone and his flesh" since we may assume he is referring to the flesh and bone of Job. But Job was only afflicted with boils. These do not afflict the bones. The key is that it is Job's wife, his flesh and bone, who has been afflicted by the suffering of Job to the point of telling him to curse God and die.

Job 2:5 But put forth thine hand now, and touch his bone and his flesh, and he will curse thee to thy face.

Job 2:6 And the LORD said unto Satan, Behold, he is in thine hand; but save his life.

Job 2:7 ¶ So went Satan forth from the presence of the LORD, and smote Job with sore boils from the sole of his foot unto his crown.

Job 2:8 And he took him a potsherd to scrape himself withal; and he sat down among the ashes.

Job 2:9 Then said his wife unto him, Dost thou still retain thine integrity? curse God, and die.

There is a cleaving of husband to wife. Consider the further allusion to marriage in the following two verses:

Job 19:20 My bone cleaveth to my skin and to my flesh, and I am escaped with the skin of my teeth.

Ge 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

In Laban's use of bone and flesh he makes himself and Jacob one flesh: Laban is like Jesus in the flesh who died desolate. Jacob took everything he had. Jacob is Christ in resurrection, with the church (his two wives, concubines, and all the children) who was fruitful and multiplying.

Ge 29:14 And Laban said to him, Surely thou art my bone and my flesh. And he abode with him the space of a month.

It should be clear that marriage is of the flesh. When the flesh dies, the marriage dies.

There are no daughters of God:

Ge 6:2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.

Ge 6:4 There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.

Nowhere in the Bible is the term "daughters of God" used. If there are no daughters of God, where is marriage? In sensus plenior, the female speaks not of gender, but of "not seeing clearly". Eve was deceived and became a metaphor for all who do not see clearly. Sons are those who see clearly. Luke makes it clear in his genealogy of Jesus, that the righteous are the sons of God by declaring Adam a son of God, implying that the righteous men in the genealogy were all sons of God. Notice that the righteous in his genealogy are all dead, and hold that thought.

These sons of God are not men, but angels:

Job 1:6 Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them.

Job 2:1 Again there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them to present himself before the LORD.

These sons of god who presented themselves before God are not men, because men are still on earth.

Also, when the morning stars of creation were formed man did not yet exist, so these sons of God are not men.

Job 38:7 When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?

Sands of the sea

Abraham's descendants (men) and the hosts of heaven (angels) are compared to the sands of the sea.

Ge 32:12 And thou saidst, I will surely do thee good, and make thy seed (men) as the sand of the sea, which cannot be numbered for multitude.

Jer 33:22 As the host of heaven (angels) cannot be numbered, neither the sand of the sea measured: so will I multiply the seed of David my servant, and the Levites that minister unto me.

Conclusion: Since the righteous men in Luke's genealogy are dead, yet they are in the resurrection (God being the God of the living, not the dead), and they are called the sons of God, the same as the angels in Job are called the sons of God, we will be like the angels in resurrection. We will all see clearly, and hence be figuratively male.

Although the answer above is sufficient to satisfy many, who accept the referenced scriptures, it has been noted that the Sadducees only accepted the Pentateuch , and therefore might not have received Jesus's rebuke. However, part of his rebuke was that they did not know the scriptures. That rebuke is legitimately applied to their rejection of the rest of scripture as well.

Seven husbands

If Jesus felt compelled to use only scripture that they accepted, then we must use only Genesis to resolve the riddle. For the sake of discussion, let's see if it can be resolved within Genesis itself by finding the riddle of the seven husbands.

In sensus plenior using Drash, the wives of Adam, Noah, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Judah and Joseph become one woman. Their husbands are types of Christ. So there are seven kinsman (another meaning for brother) who had one wife. If this is the source of the riddle, then they are simply mocking Jesus and changing the rules for sensus plenior into a dirty joke. If the rule was applied properly, all the kinsmen would become one man, Christ Jesus.

No marriage in the resurrection

The question now becomes, where in Genesis does it say Christ is not married in heaven?

In Ge 2:21 The wife of Adam as a type of Christ, is brought into existence through his death (sleep also means death, dictionary). The bride of Christ is flesh of his flesh and bone of his bone, The church is called not only the bride of Christ but the body of Christ. Therefore the marriage of Christ is in the flesh. If the church is the body of Christ on earth his marriage was an earthly marriage.

There are no daughters of God, and the female represents those who do not see clearly, therefore there will be no daughters in the resurrection. Those who do not see clearly (the blind) will see. So they will all be male (having nothing to do with gender, but representing that they see).

The question was mere mockery, intentionally twisting the method that Jesus taught in the temple, since when the rules are applied properly, the seven men become one man just as all the wives become one woman.